Which is the correct phrase, "none has" or "none have"?
2023-06-26
This is what goPenpal answered
The correct usage actually depends on the context: "none has" or "none have" can both be correct. In a formal or singular context, "none has" is used, such as when none refers to "no one" or "not one." Example: "None has arrived yet." On the other hand, in an informal or plural context, "none have" is acceptable. So, when none implies 'not any', we use 'have'. For example, if we're discussing cookies, we can say "None have been eaten yet." Remember, 'none' can stand for 'not one', 'not any', and can be singular or plural based on usage. It's one of English language's quirky nuances!
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