Which sentence is correct: "It's been hit by a car" or "It has been hit by a car"?
2023-04-19
This is what goPenpal answered
Hi there! Great question. Both "It's been hit by a car" and "It has been hit by a car" are correct, but they have slightly different meanings.
"It's been hit by a car" is a contraction of "It has been hit by a car". The contraction "it's" can sometimes cause confusion because it can be a contraction of "it is" or "it has". However, in this case, "it's" is a contraction of "it has".
Saying "it's been hit by a car" implies that the car accident happened somewhat recently, and the effects of the accident are still noticeable. The word "been" is the past participle of the verb "be", which means that something has happened or occurred. In this case, the thing that has happened is the car accident.
On the other hand, "it has been hit by a car" implies that the car accident happened at some point in the past, but it may not necessarily be recent. The word "has" is the present perfect tense of the verb "have", which means that an action has happened in the past with a connection to the present. So, saying "it has been hit by a car" acknowledges that the accident happened in the past, but shows that it is still relevant or important in some way.
I hope that clears things up! Let me know if you have any other questions.
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